So Jesus said to Peter, "Put your sword into its sheath; shall I not drink the cup that the Father has given me?"
What an interesting statement, "shall I not drink the cup that the Father has given me?" What was Jesus doing here? What was it that He was relaying by using such words?
Certainly Jesus, more so than all mankind, knew intimately that the Father is good and as such does not give bad things. Jesus clearly sees the coming suffering as something given to Him by the Father.
The phrase cup is unique and effective in relaying this powerful truth. What father would give his child a poisonous cup? Setting an example by such powerful submissive language, Jesus displays His willingness to receive the cup given to Him by His Father, bitter though the cup may be. On this side of history it is clear to see that though the cup was indeed bitter, it has orchestrated the greatest good that has ever, or will ever come to mankind. (1Peter 3:18a) For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, that he might bring us to God.
Such are the ways of the Father whose ways are as high above our ways as the heavens are above the earth.
Jesus knew full well that His Father is good. Jesus was able to see through the bitterness to the joy. (Hebrews 12:2b) who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross, despising the shame, and is seated at the right hand of the throne of God.
For it has been granted to you that for the sake of Christ you should not only believe in him but also suffer for his sake,
Would we as children of this same Father receive such a cup from Him in like manner?